Special Operations Terminal Attack Controller Course (SOTACC) Day 2 Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• In the B-52H scenario, what action did the JTAC perform to coordinate the attack?
• Which radio call is correctly paired with the status 'Leaving IP... enroute to TGT'?
• What clearance is issued for a simulated (Dry) Type 3 Control?
• In the B-52H scenario, what equipment did the JTAC use to confirm the target?
• Which statement best describes how target acquisition is approached in BOT?
• The optimal method of attack is chosen based on which factors?
• The A/C radio call 'PUSHING' correlates with which movement?
• Who provides readbacks for USMC/USN operations?
• The JTAC must authorize all reattacks.
• Which items are required when stating threats in remarks?
• What does 'Abort in the clear' mean?
• What items constitute mandatory readbacks?
• BDA is for the flight, not for the individual aircraft. True or False?
• Distance from the center of the BP to the target is listed with what precision?
• The A/C radio call 'POP' or 'UP' indicates what type of ingress?
• Which statement about readbacks in JTAC operations is accurate?
• Which munitions are used for a low altitude level delivery?
• Which phrase includes a heading to accompany clearance?
• What brevity term approves a tactical Show of Force?
• Which statement best defines Tactical Show of Force?
• Tactics are driven by which factors?
• What munitions are typically used in a high altitude level delivery?
• What information is provided to friendlies on Line 8 of the 9-Line briefing?
• In a live Type 3 control, which clearance explicitly authorizes beginning engagement?
• Always ask for what when A/C is carrying LGBs?
• Which acronym identifies the four elements used to coordinate tactical show of force?
• Which scenario demonstrates BOC employment where the aircraft relies on JTAC laser designation due to distance constraints?
• In a dry Type 3 control, CONTINUE DRY means continue without what?
• Which line addresses friendlies?
• Under Type 1 Control, which statement is true?
• Which of the following is listed as a planning factor?
• In the TMOI framework, which element addresses the intended weapon effects?
• Which scenario describes the use of self-generated coordinates for JDAM employment via the aircraft's own sensor?
• Which of the following is a disadvantage of High/Medium Altitude Tactics?
• For a BOC attack, when is correlation considered complete?
• When selecting holding areas and altitude, which factor is listed as a consideration?
• If the abort code is used during an attack, the JTAC must reestablish the abort code prior to commencing another attack.
• Regarding tallying on a target, which statement about marking friendly positions is true?
• Target Elevation is in MSL and given to the nearest what unit?
• What is the least restrictive interval?
• In O/H Tactics, what radius is used for LITENING/SNIPER/ATFLIR?
• Which type of control expedites ordnance employment on multiple targets in an engagement area?
• What is briefed in Clearance Authority?
• What is the technique for tactical show of force coordination?
• Which of the following is an advantage of Low/Very Low Tactics related to PID (target identification)?
• When passing BDA, at a minimum you should pass what for the mission status?
• Which instruction is used to order immediate attack timing?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the six basic elements that affect talk-on effectiveness?
• How is a heading measured?
• What munitions are typically used in a low altitude level delivery?
• What is the definition of Terminal Attack Control (TAC)?
• Very Low Altitude Blocks are defined as which range?
• What is briefed in Threat Activity?
• Routing should include a _____ and an ______ that provides deconfliction from other aircraft and fires.
• A B 52H bomber dropping CBU 103 on an area target which the JTAC sent to them and they confirmed with their TGP. What type of coordination does this illustrate?
• Which statement is a Type 2 Control Disadvantage?
• Line 3 distance statement: Which option correctly describes it?
• Target Description consists of which three elements for a general description?
• What is briefed in Enemy Situation?
• Close proximity is the distance within which some form of terminal attack control is required for ______ and ______.
• Which item is NOT listed as a hazard to be briefed?
• In the sequence of the CAS 12-Step Process, which step typically follows Correlation?
• Which is NOT an element of ordnance adjustments?
• The statement 'The type of control are ordnance specific' is:
• Which statement is true about color visibility limitations in Pod Talk On?
• Which radio call indicates the aircraft is inbound to the IP?
• Type of TAC shall be passed as part of the game plan.
• A/C will report what during a Type 3 Control?
• Which item is duplicated at the start and end of the CAS Step list?
• What is briefed in Hazards?
• Which statement is true regarding reattacks?
• JTAC should ask the aircraft if they are ready for BDA before sending it, and then pass each aircraft their BDA for the attack.
• Which statement about passing friendly grids in a Friendly Situation briefing is correct?
• Which control type permits the use of stand-off weapons and full sensor utilization?
• In a Game Plan, Interval refers to what?
• What is the starting point emphasized in Pod Talk On?
• What is the intended outcome of a Tactical Show of Force?
• What is correlation?
• When should you caution using a LRF coupled with GPS/compass to pull a coordinate?
• Offsets from a known point should be established by the controller and acquired by the aircrew prior to the CAS brief, either visually or with a sensor. True or False?
• Type 3 Control Disadvantage: CAS aircraft may be required to find their own targets.
• Terminal Guidance Operations use which forms of communication?
• TOT stands for which term in this context?
• Tactics are based on THREATS and modified by what?
• Which type of control would be best used against multiple targets in an engagement area?
• Which statement about Type 2 Control is most accurate?
• Which Type requires visual acquisition of both the attacking aircraft and the target for each attack?
• Which type of control is least restrictive to CAS aircraft?
• The JTAC will ______ until the attacking aircraft has completed maneuvering on the target.
• Which line number contains the Heading / Offset data?
• What is Line 1 in the 9-Line Brief?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a planning factor affecting fixed wing CAS tactics?
• BOT or BOC define how the aircraft will acquire what?
• What lines should be passed for the Situation Update?
• What should you do when an abort code is passed?
• What weapon systems should not be controlled under Type 1?
• High/Medium Altitude Tactics reduce exposure to which threats?
• Line 3 distance calculation uses two measurements. Which combination is correct?
• Which type of control allows the JTAC to maintain abort authority?
• Who should establish the offset point?
• Specific levels of risk should not be associated with each type of terminal attack control. This statement is:
• For BOT, is the aircraft required to tally, capture, or contact the mark?
• Which line provides TGT Location?
• Which of the following is NOT a line 7 mark type?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the general target description?
• Which line designates the TGT Location?
• Type 3 Control Disadvantage: Least direct JTAC control of weapons effects.
• Risk assessments involve processing available information to ascertain which level of risk to friendly forces or civilians.
• The closest friendly position is referenced by which heading?
• What is the mnemonic to remember what to state in a Type 3 control?
• Which line carries Distance?
• In TEFACHR, which item is 'Artillery Activity'?
• True/False: Low/Very Low Tactics allow attacks under weather ceilings.
• What is the acronym to remember what to do for Routing & Safety of Flight?
• What unit is used for the IP-to-target distance?
• Which of the following is a disadvantage of Type 1 Control?
• T/F: If a single aircraft is dropping multiple JDAMs on different DPIs, a readback will not be required for each DPI.
• The Lat/Long format DM.MMM expresses coordinates in degrees and decimal minutes.
• What is the optimal interval method of attacking multiple targets, especially mobile targets?
• What reasons may a reattack be required?
• Which remark item may be included if applicable?
• Which statement about BOT readbacks is correct?
• In ordnance adjustments, which element provides the textual depiction of the target (for example, '2 trucks in/out')?
• Which statement is a valid Type 2 Control advantage?
• Which TEFACHR component covers remarks and restrictions?
• What is the CAS Check In acronym?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the CAS 12-Step Process list?
• Which TEFACHR component refers to the authority to grant clearance?
• If the JTAC cannot visually acquire the attacking aircraft at weapons release and/or the target, which Type of control is used?
• Which line provides TGT Description?
• Is a system readback mandatory for a BOC?
• What munitions are typically used for a dive delivery?
• In a BOC, where do the attack coordinates come from?
• Which four elements should be communicated in Initial Contact to establish position and type?
• Is correlation mandatory for a BOT attack?
• In the tactical risk assessment, are specific levels of risk usually associated with each Type of control?
• Which of the following is listed as a risk to consider during your risk assessment?
• TAC is the authority to control the _____________, and ___________ to attacking aircraft.
• Line 8 of the 9-Line briefing provides friendlies with distance and direction from the target. In what line is this information provided?
• Which of the following statements correctly describes High Altitude Blocks?
• What is the BOC requirement regarding target coordinates?
• What is the acronym used for restrictions?
• Which statement is true regarding reattacks?
• Which term describes the clearance granted during Type 3 control?
• What is the Initial Point (IP) used for in fixed-wing operations?
• Which control types use CLEARED HOT?
• Where is an Initial Point (IP) normally located relative to the target area?
• Which radio call indicates the aircraft has left IP and is en route to the target?
• Very Low Altitude Airspace Blocks are considered to be below what altitude AGL?
• A heading consists of how many digits?
• Which is an advantage of High/Medium Altitude Tactics regarding navigation?
• Which item could be included in a reattack briefing?
• True or False: Aircrew can modify coordinates after they have been read back in a BOC?
• Clearance CAN be given prior to the IN A/C call during Type 1 or 2 control?
• In Pod Talk On, which distance expression is recommended?
• Which of the following is part of the CAS 12 Step Process?
• What is briefed in Artillery Activity?
• Which item is explicitly described as part of the Remarks/Restrictions briefing?
• High Altitude Airspace Blocks are considered to be above what altitude in feet AGL?
• In a Shooter-Eyeball Attack, which term may describe the arrangement where one aircraft drops an LGB and the other hosts it?
• In O/H Tactics, what radius is used for visual acquisition when holding directly over the target area?
• Type 3 control is used when the JTAC requires the ability to provide clearance for multiple attacks within a single engagement subject to specific restrictions.
• Which statement best describes the meaning of "Close" in proximity terms?
• Which of the following is an advantage of Type 1 Control?
• How are threats briefed in Remarks of the 9-Line briefing?
• What are the four elements of ordnance adjustments?
• What does SALTR stand for in BDA reporting?
• What clearance is issued by the JTAC for the attacking aircraft to commence during a live Type 3 control?
• Close Proximity is defined as the distance within which some form of terminal attack control is required for ______ and ______.
• What is required for the JTAC for a TYPE 2 control?
• Which line represents the Distance measurement?
• In MNPOPCA, which element does the letter C stand for?
• Final Instructions consists of which two parts?
• In VDL Talk On, what is the recommended starting point for targeting?
• What is the mandatory final instruction A/C call for Type 1 & 2 controls?
• Which TEFACHR component covers hazards?
• Which pairing correctly matches a radio call to its status?
• What is required for a TYPE 1 control?
• Which of the following are examples of when to use Type 2 control?
• What is the least accurate way to produce a coordinate?
• Which identifier is used with the 6 or 8 digit Target Location Grid?
• What is the minimum separation between each flight?
• Medium Altitude Blocks are defined as which range?
• An F 16 dropping a GBU 12 on the JTAC's laser designation because their LANTIRN pod is too far away to acquire the target. This is an example of which control approach?
• The A/C radio call 'Wings Level' indicates what action by the JTAC?
• What is a Shooter-Shooter Attack?
• In Visual Talk-On, which distance guidance is recommended?
• Which data point in the Artillery Activity briefing indicates the current status of artillery lines?
• Which pair of lines covers TGT Location and Egress?
• What does "Detailed Integration" describe in the CAS planning context?
• The tactical situation will define the risk.
• At a VERY minimum, the game plan must consist of which element?
• If a JTAC cannot derive JDAM quality coordinates and the aircraft self-generates coordinates using its targeting pod to employ the weapon, this is an example of which control approach?
• The Target Location Grid uses a 6 or 8 digit grid.
• Which line contains Type of Mark/Terminal Guidance?
• Medium Altitude Airspace Blocks are considered to be between which elevations?
• Which phrase prompts JTAC for clearance?
• Who uses Initial Points?
• Types of TAC are tools that give the ground commander the greatest chance of accomplishing the mission while _________ and _______.
• In O/H Tactics, what radius is used when employing LANTIRN?
• What is briefed in Remarks/Restrictions?
• For BOC, is the aircraft required to tally, capture, or contact the mark?
• Which of the following is not a defined airspace block category?
• If conducting multiple DPI BOC, regardless of distance, you must state what for each DPI?
• Hearing 'PUSHING' indicates the aircraft is in which phase?
• The Aircrew's correlation requirement is a consideration within the Method of Attack.
• Offset Direction is specified in what two directions?
• Target Area Tactics are a compromise between which two factors?
• What best describes Type 3 Control?
• Which phrase communicates clearance including a heading?
• T/F: TGO includes authority to clear aircraft to release ordnance.
• Which Talk On mode requires establishing a good handshake with the A/C?
• Target Location Grid should consist of what?
• What does Terminal Attack Control (TAC) authorize in practical terms?
• Which munitions are used for high altitude level delivery?
• What should the JTAC do in Type 2 and Type 3 control to provide an additional measure of safety?
• Are system readbacks mandatory for BOT?
• The A/C radio call 'IP Inbound' correlates with which status?
• Marking friendly positions is the ____ desirable method of enabling a tally on the target.
• In MNPOPCA, what does the letter O stand for?
• What does LGWs require in order to conduct simultaneous attacks?
• What is briefed in Friendly Situation/CDR's Intent?
• Who uses Battle Positions (BPs)?
• In VDL Talk On, you see what the pilot's sensor is 'seeing'.
• What should you brief arriving aircraft about in your separation plans?
• T/F: All aircraft in the flight/section dropping BOC must perform a readback.
• What is the mandatory information for briefing multiple additional DPIs that are far from the primary DPI?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of the Target Talk On mnemonic?
• What is the typical Target Location Lat/Long format?
• Which of the following is a disadvantage of Low/Very Low Tactics?
• What are the four types of delivery?
• If you're unsure of the current aircraft location, you should do what?
• Which statement accurately describes readback requirements for BOT and BOC?
• An AV 8B dropping GBU 16s performing a 'buddy lase'. This scenario demonstrates which employment technique?
• Which line contains Heading / Offset?
• What is the heading for example 085 in degrees magnetic?
• Under Type 1 control, the aircraft must have 'Tally' on the target during the engagement.
• When is a pop-up delivery used?
• What defines a racetrack pattern?
• What calls are provided in a Type 1 and Type 2 Control?
• Which item is described as part of the Friendly Situation briefing to aid maneuver planning?
• In VDL Talk On, which statement describes describing color with light or dark?
• Method of Attack is an _____ between the supported commander, the JTAC, and the aircraft.
• How should the closest friendly position be referenced and stated?
• Which scenario demonstrates the buddy lase technique?
• Which type of air delivery is included with Level, Dive, and Pop Up?
• For BOC attacks, which option satisfies the correlation requirement?
• What unit is used for the distance from the Battle Position center to the target?
• What unit is used to measure distance in relation to the target?
• Which statement best describes the difference between CONTINUE DRY and CONTINUE?
• What is the most accurate way to produce a coordinate?
• What is Close Air Support (CAS) as defined in air operations?
• If a target is in close proximity and requires detailed integration, what is required?
• Which Type of control provides the JTAC the most control over possible fratricide concerns?
• Which term is defined as the JTAC granting weapons release clearance to an aircraft attacking a specific target during Type 1 and Type 2 control?
• Which statement correctly lists the three TAC types?
• What should you say in your holding instructions?
• What is defined as Terminal Guidance Operations (TGO)?
• Which CAS step ensures alignment between air and ground forces?
• CAS is an action by aircraft against hostile targets that are in ______ and that ______ of each air mission with the fire and movement of those forces.
• Why are IP Tactics used?
• Which statement accurately describes a Shooter-Cover Attack?
• Which line designates Egress?
• Which brevity term approves an aircraft to continue his present maneuver without expending ordnance?
• What four items should you state in your Initial Contact?
• Which line lists the closest friendlies?
• Which lines contain the additional DPI information after the 9-Line?
• Which of the following is NOT a Game Plan element (TMOI)?
• Type 3 Control Disadvantage: Most difficult to quickly ascertain target validity and confirm BDA.
• What delivery method is normally used when employing JDAMs?
• True/False: Not issuing a clearance to drop is the same as giving an abort.
• Which statement best contrasts Type 1 and Type 2 Control?
• Low Altitude Airspace Blocks are considered to be within which range?
• GTLs should be transmitted in which units?
• Are Lines 4 through 6 combinable into a single statement for an abbreviated 9-Line?
• How many TAC types exist?
• In a Shooter-Eyeball Attack, which of the following describes the arrangement commonly associated?
• Which is a Type 2 Control Disadvantage?
• Which of the following is an advantage of High/Medium Altitude Tactics related to deconfliction?
• In Type 2 and Type 3 JTAC controls, the JTAC should visually acquire the target or rely on targeting data from ______.
• Which of the following is a method of attack?
• Which is NOT a basic element that will affect talk-on effectiveness?
• Which type of control reduces JTAC workload?
• What are the two acronyms to remember Situation Update?
• Lines 4, 6, and 8 contain what type of information?
• JTACs should mark the target if able, and follow up with a second source of verification.
• Which lines contain both TGT Elevation and TGT Description?
• What is the correct format for transmitting the 9-Line brief?
• Where is a Battle Position (BP) normally located relative to the target area?
• Which final instruction should be used to order an immediate attack on the target?
• Which line provides TGT Elevation?
• If FW aircraft are in the overhead, 5 nm wheel or orbit around the target area, lines 1-3 can be abbreviated as what?
• Which radio call indicates the aircraft is in a low altitude, high-threat ingress?
• Who provides readbacks for USAF operations?
• Which statement about BOC readbacks is correct?
• Under Type 1 control, the JTAC must visually acquire which elements?
• What is the BOT requirement regarding target acquisition?
• What calls are provided for a Type 3 Control?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the three interval types?
• For BOC attacks, ______ satisfies the correlation requirement.